Pokota
Sep 30 2009, 7:54 PM EDT
| Post edited: Sep 30 2009, 7:54 PM EDT
Shouldn't the expected value of the number of trials until you roll a 1 be 6. If the chance of getting a 1 is 1/6. Then 1/p = 1/1/6 = 6 trials. This would make intuitive sense. Also see: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Geometric_distribution
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